What is the origin of the Indo-European languages from an Israelitist perspective?
I know that several Indo-European languages, such as Irish Gaelic, Welsh and some Germanic languages like English contain Hebrew elements but, I mean in the general sense of its origins. Particularly how did the Lost Tribes come to start speaking these languages?
The answer to your question is to examine the several stages of Israelite migration. When the Israelite tribes went into exile, they eventually were scattered throughout Asia. Also, the many colonists of the original Israelite kingdom were “cut off” and on their own in the British Isles, mainland Europe, Mediterranean locations, etc. when the original kingdom of Israel fell (these people were later called Celts). Daniel 9:7 confirms that the Israelite tribes were scattered into many countries both “near” and “far” from Daniel’s location in ancient Medo-Persia. The Scythian-Parthian-Saka descendants of the ten tribes were located from the Indus River of India to Europe, but they all had a common Israelite origin. This would have given them a common linguistic origin as well. When Scythia and Parthia fell and their millions of refugees poured into Europe, they brought their language common with them. Many of the Gothic-German-Saxon tribes (the Scythians and Parthians given new names by the Romans) which entered Europe had a similar “Germanic” tongue which branched out eventually into modern languages.
It is known, for example, that English, German, Dutch, Norwegian, etc. all came from this common mother tongue. When doing research for my most recent books, I saw firsthand how “Germanic” Old English manuscripts from the Middle Ages look to a modern reader. It helps to know some German to even be able to decipher some of the words. Languages change dramatically over time. I’ll leave the details of those language changes to the linguists, but I hope this answer indicates how I see the development and spread of the “Indo-European” languages in an Israelite migrational context.